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Obstetrics and gynaecology medical question bank

Practise every obstetrics and gynaecology topic with explained SBAs.

Recall Engine has 1,500+ obstetrics and gynaecology questions across 90+ topics in 4 body systems. Every question explains each option.

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1,500+
topics
90+
topic notes
70+
clinical skills guides
30+
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Obstetrics and gynaecology by body system

Obstetrics and gynaecology has 90+ topics in 4 body systems. Each section shows how many questions it has and every topic it covers.

Reproductive and breast

1,500+ questions across 90+ topics. It also has 70+ topic notes and 30+ clinical skills guides.

  • Abnormal uterine bleeding: assessment and treatment
  • Abortion care
  • Abortion counselling
  • Adnexal lesions
  • Amenorrhoea
  • Amniotic fluid disorders
  • Antenatal care and screening
  • Antenatal care history taking
  • Antenatal history taking
  • Assisted reproductive techniques
  • Basics of ultrasound in obstetrics
  • Benign uterine masses: adenomyosis
  • Bimanual pelvic examination
  • Breech at 37 weeks: ECV and birth choices
  • Cervical and endometrial cancer
  • Cervical smear
  • Chronic pelvic pain
  • Clinical aspects of miscarriage
  • Condom use: demonstration and counselling
  • Congenital perinatal infections
  • Contraception counselling
  • CTG interpretation in labour
  • Delivery emergencies: maternal collapse and cord prolapse
  • Diabetes in pregnancy
  • Dysmenorrhoea: primary and secondary causes
  • Emergency contraception
  • Endometrial biopsy
  • Endometriosis: recognition, investigation, and care
  • Female infertility
  • Fetal anomalies, alloimmunisation, and prenatal diagnosis
  • Fetal growth restriction and macrosomia
  • Full obstetric and gynaecological history
  • Gynaecological cancer: ovarian cancer
  • Gynaecological history
  • Gynaecological surgery: perioperative care
  • Headache in pregnancy
  • High-risk pregnancy: cardiac disease and anaemia
  • High-risk pregnancy: vomiting and thyroid disease
  • High-risk pregnancy: VTE and autoimmune disorders
  • Hypertensive disorders of pregnancy
  • Hysteroscopy and laparoscopy: indications and complications
  • Infertility history taking
  • Infertility workup
  • Intrauterine device insertion
  • Labour and birth
  • Labour and complications of childbirth
  • Liver disease in pregnancy
  • Manual vacuum aspiration: first trimester
  • Medical disorders in pregnancy: epilepsy and UTI
  • Mediolateral episiotomy: indication and repair
  • Menopause
  • Multiple pregnancy
  • Non-rotational forceps birth
  • Obstetric abdominal examination
  • Obstetric and gynaecological history taking
  • Obstetric examination
  • Obstetric, gynaecological, and urological history
  • Pelvic inflammatory disease
  • Pelvic organ prolapse: examination and POP-Q
  • Perineal tears: assessment and OASI
  • Polycystic ovary syndrome
  • POP-Q staging: measurements and stage boundaries
  • Prelabour rupture of membranes and chorioamnionitis
  • Preterm labour and birth
  • Primary postpartum haemorrhage: first response
  • Prolapse and incontinence history
  • Prolapse and incontinence: history taking
  • Puberty and its disorders
  • Puerperium: normal changes and complications
  • Reproductive ageing and menopause
  • Retained placenta
  • Role of ultrasound in gynaecology
  • Secondary postpartum haemorrhage and infection
  • Sepsis
  • Sexual dysfunction
  • Sexual history in women
  • Sexual history taking
  • Shoulder dystocia: team response and posterior arm
  • Speculum and bimanual examination
  • Speculum examination
  • Spontaneous vaginal birth
  • Subfertility: work-up and treatment
  • Surgical evacuation of products of conception
  • Testicular examination
  • The mechanisms of labour
  • Unexpected breech in advanced labour
  • Unintended pregnancy: options counselling
  • Urinary incontinence and prolapse
  • Urine pregnancy test
  • Uterine fibroids: anatomy, symptoms, and treatment
  • Uterine sampling: Pipelle, D&C, aspiration, and D&E
  • Uterus and adnexa: ultrasound and MRI
  • Vaginal delivery: fetal station and engagement
  • Viral infections in pregnancy
  • Vulvar swellings

Skin

10+ questions across 1 topic. It also has 1 topic note.

  • Skin changes in pregnancy

Infection and immunity

10+ questions across 1 topic. It also has 1 topic note.

  • HIV in pregnancy

Population health and evidence

20+ questions across 1 topic. It also has 1 topic note.

  • Domestic and sexual violence

Obstetrics and gynaecology sample questions

These 5 are published obstetrics and gynaecology questions shown exactly as students see them. Open an answer to see why it is right and why every other option is wrong.

Question 1 · Obstetrics and gynaecology, Clinical

Which is a potential risk of hysteroscopic resection of a submucosal fibroid?

  1. A. Early ovarian failure
  2. B. Fluid overload
  3. C. Pressure symptoms
  4. D. Wound-healing problems
  5. E. Fertility- and pregnancy-related problems
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B. Fluid overload

The potential risks of hysteroscopic resection are bleeding, infection, fluid overload, and uterine perforation. The other options belong to hysterectomy or to the symptoms of fibroids.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Early ovarian failure: Early ovarian failure is linked to hysterectomy.
  • C. Pressure symptoms: Pressure symptoms come from fibroids themselves, as do menstrual disturbance and fertility- and pregnancy-related problems.
  • D. Wound-healing problems: Wound-healing problems are a well-known complication after hysterectomy.
  • E. Fertility- and pregnancy-related problems: Fertility- and pregnancy-related problems come from fibroids themselves, in a proportion of women with fibroids.

Key point: The risks of hysteroscopic fibroid resection are bleeding, infection, fluid overload, and uterine perforation.

Question 2 · Obstetrics and gynaecology, Clinical

A 30-year-old woman discloses that her husband's beatings have become more frequent over the past 6 months. Last week he held a knife to her throat and squeezed her neck until she nearly fainted, and she says she believes he could kill her. She plans to go home tonight to her two children. What is the most appropriate next step?

  1. A. Share your concern for her life and arrange safe shelter for tonight
  2. B. Give her a helpline number and arrange a routine review in one month
  3. C. Recommend joint couples counselling to reduce the conflict at home
  4. D. Arrange a psychiatric referral for her anxiety about the recent threats
  5. E. Let her go home tonight and ask her to record any further incidents
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A. Share your concern for her life and arrange safe shelter for tonight

She reports escalation over 6 months, a weapon threat, strangulation, and a belief that he could kill her. WHO's immediate-risk questions flag especially high risk with 3 or more yes answers; she has 4, which also meets the 4-of-18 cut-off of a longer partner risk checklist. The response is to say you are concerned for her safety and discuss options for tonight, such as shelter, safe housing, or the police, including her children.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Give her a helpline number and arrange a routine review in one month: A helpline and later review suit low risk; escalation, a knife threat, strangulation, and fear of being killed mean the plan must cover tonight.
  • C. Recommend joint couples counselling to reduce the conflict at home: Joint counselling in partner violence can provoke retaliation and implies shared blame; it is not offered when there is abuse.
  • D. Arrange a psychiatric referral for her anxiety about the recent threats: Her fear is realistic, not a disorder; strangulation and a weapon threat are markers of lethal risk that need safety action now.
  • E. Let her go home tonight and ask her to record any further incidents: Recording incidents helps later legal action, but sending her home ignores four high-risk answers and her children's safety.

Key point: After disclosure, ask about escalation, weapons, strangulation, and threats to kill; when several are present, share your concern and plan immediate safety, such as shelter or safe housing that night, including the children.

References

Question 3 · Obstetrics and gynaecology, Clinical

A prevention clinic compares asymptomatic singleton pregnancies with intact membranes. None has a history of cervical trauma. Which patient meets the NG25 prior-PPROM plus short-cervix branch for considering prophylactic cervical cerclage?

  1. A. 21 weeks; cervix 33 mm; previous PPROM at 29 weeks
  2. B. 28 weeks; cervix 23 mm; previous PPROM at 29 weeks
  3. C. 21 weeks; cervix 23 mm; no previous pregnancy
  4. D. 21 weeks; cervix 23 mm; previous PPROM at 35 weeks
  5. E. 15 weeks; cervix 23 mm; previous PPROM at 29 weeks
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D. 21 weeks; cervix 23 mm; previous PPROM at 35 weeks

NG25 considers prophylactic cerclage when a scan at 16+0 to 24+0 weeks shows cervical length at or below 25 mm and there is prior PPROM or cervical trauma. The patient at 21 weeks with a 23-mm cervix and previous PPROM meets this branch. This prior-PPROM branch does not add the separate prior-spontaneous-birth-at-or-before-34-weeks condition.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. 21 weeks; cervix 33 mm; previous PPROM at 29 weeks: This scan does not show a cervix of 25 mm or less, so the prior-PPROM plus short-cervix cerclage branch is not met.
  • B. 28 weeks; cervix 23 mm; previous PPROM at 29 weeks: This scan is outside the 16+0 to 24+0-week window for the specified prophylactic-cerclage branch.
  • C. 21 weeks; cervix 23 mm; no previous pregnancy: The short cervix is present, but the specific prior-PPROM or cervical-trauma history is absent.
  • E. 15 weeks; cervix 23 mm; previous PPROM at 29 weeks: The current scan precedes the 16+0-week start of the stated prophylactic-cerclage assessment window.

Key point: A short cervix plus prior PPROM can support considering prophylactic cerclage under NG25.

Question 4 · Obstetrics and gynaecology, Clinical

A woman who is RhD negative has an external cephalic version for a breech presentation. Which step of the procedure applies to her because of her blood group?

  1. A. Anti-D immunoglobulin
  2. B. Lying flat for the attempt
  3. C. Administration of a tocolytic
  4. D. Confirmation of the presentation on ultrasound
  5. E. Post-procedure CTG
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A. Anti-D immunoglobulin

Anti-D immunoglobulin is administered if the woman is RhD negative, as the last step after the ECV and post-procedure CTG. The other steps are part of the technique for every woman.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Lying flat for the attempt: Lying flat is a step of the ECV technique for every woman, after the tocolytic and before the forward somersault.
  • C. Administration of a tocolytic: A tocolytic is administered after the CTG and before the woman lies flat.
  • D. Confirmation of the presentation on ultrasound: Confirming the presentation on ultrasound is the first step of the ECV technique for every woman, before the CTG.
  • E. Post-procedure CTG: A post-procedure CTG follows every ECV attempt, before anti-D immunoglobulin is given to a woman who is RhD negative.

Key point: Administer anti-D immunoglobulin after ECV if the woman is RhD negative.

Question 5 · Obstetrics and gynaecology, Clinical

A previously normotensive woman has repeated BP 148/92 mmHg at 29 weeks. Quantitative urine protein, maternal blood tests and fetal assessment show no defining pre-eclampsia finding. Which classification fits the current assessment?

  1. A. Gestational hypertension
  2. B. Pre-eclampsia
  3. C. HELLP syndrome
  4. D. Eclampsia
  5. E. Chronic hypertension
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A. Gestational hypertension

New post-20-week hypertension without defining pre-eclampsia findings fits gestational hypertension. Continued surveillance is needed because the condition can evolve.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Pre-eclampsia: No qualifying additional pre-eclampsia finding is currently identified.
  • C. HELLP syndrome: The triad defining HELLP is absent.
  • D. Eclampsia: No seizure has occurred.
  • E. Chronic hypertension: The hypertension first appears after 20 weeks without evidence of a pre-existing condition.

Key point: Classify new post-20-week hypertension without defining pre-eclampsia findings as gestational hypertension.